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Answer: [tex]\bold{b)\quad \dfrac{2\pi}{3},\dfrac{4\pi}{3},0}[/tex]
Step-by-step explanation:
Note the following identities: tan² x = sec²x - 1
[tex]\sec x=\dfrac{1}{\cos}[/tex]
tan² x + sec x = 1
(sec² x -1) + sec x = 1
sec² x + sec x - 2 = 0
(sec x + 2)(sec x - 1) = 0
sec x + 2 = 0 sec x - 1 = 0
sec x = -2 sec x = 1
[tex]\dfrac{1}{\cos x}=-2\qquad \dfrac{1}{\cos x}=1\\\\\cos x=-\dfrac{1}{2}\qquad \cos x=1\\\\x=\dfrac{2\pi}{3}, \dfrac{4\pi}{3}\qquad x=0[/tex]
Answer:
Option B
Step-by-step explanation:
We have tan^2( x ) + sec( x ) = 1.
First subtract 1 from either side, applying the identity tan^2( x ) = - 1 + sec^2( x ) = - 2 + sec( x ) + sec^2( x ) = 0
One key method that you should use to solve like problems, is to substitute a rather large value with a variable, such as say a. Let sec( x ) = a,
- 2 + a + a^2 = 0,
By the zero product property, a = 1, a = - 2. Substitute this value of a back into sec( x ) -
sec( x ) = 1, sec( x ) = - 2
From this we can create inequality( s ) as follows -
sec( x ) = 1, 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π, x = 0 and x = 2π
sec( x ) = - 2, 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π, x = 2π / 3 and x = 4π / 3
As you can see, x is the following solutions -
0, 2π, 2π / 3, 4π / 3
Eliminate 2π, and it should be that your solution is option B